When Darius said he was Aryan, what did he mean?
"I am Darius the great king, king of kings, king of countries containing all kinds of men, king in this great earth far and wide, son of Hystaspes, an Achaemenid, a Persian, son of a Persian, an Aryan, having Aryan lineage.".
My last respondent suggested the word Aryan in this context does not mean what one would think it means.
But he/she did not state what it means.
What did it mean?
Please before answering, make sure your answer can be supported, and stand up to scrutiny.
Sometimes linguistic scholars looking at things through a microscope (allegorically speaking) to determine the roots of a language are not the best people. Sometimes, simply look and see if there was people using the terminology prior to that period, and that should give one a rough idea.
- Anonymous2 months agoFavorite Answer
Spoke a language (and used the customs) that his father had spoken.
- ?Lv 72 months ago
Ancient Iranian peoples used the term airya- as an ethnic label for themselves and in reference to their mythical homeland, Airyanem Vaejah, in the Avesta scriptures. The root also forms the etymological source of the place names Iran and Alania. The use of Arya as an ethno-cultural self-designation is only attested among Indo-Iranian peoples, and it is not known if Proto-Indo-European (PIE) speakers had a term to designate themselves as a group. In any case, scholars point out that, even in ancient times, the idea of being an "Aryan" was religious, cultural and linguistic, not racial.
- Anonymous2 months ago
In Indo-Aryan languages, āryan means "one who does noble deeds; a noble one".
- TinaLv 72 months ago
No, Dave (currently 1465)
You should know by now - you have been told often enough:
"By the late 19th century the steppe theory of Indo-European origins was challenged by a view that the Indo-Europeans originated in ancient Germany or Scandinavia – or at least that in those countries the original Indo-European ethnicity had been preserved. The word Aryan was consequently used even more restrictively – and even less in keeping with its Indo-Iranian origins – to mean "Germanic", "Nordic" or Northern Europeans."
And this is the way Hitler used it. In April 1933 shortly Hitler seized power the:
"the Aryan Paragraph first appeared in the Third Reich in the formulation of the Law for the Restoration of the Professional Civil Service, which was passed on 7 April 1933. It stipulated that only those of Aryan descent, without Jewish parents or grandparents, could be employed in the civil service. The Aryan Paragraph was extended to education on 25 April 1933, in the Law against the Overcrowding of German Schools and Universities.On June 30 of the same year, it was broadened to entail that even marriage to a "non-Aryan" sufficed for exclusion from a civil service career. In keeping with Nazi synchronization (Gleichschaltung), Nazi Party pressure led many federations and organizations to adopt the Aryan Paragraph. Thus, Jews were barred from the public health system, lost their honorary public offices, were driven from editorial offices (Editor Law) and theaters (Reichskulturkammer), and were excluded from agriculture (Reichserbhofgesetz), a progression culminating in the Nuremberg Laws "for the final separation of Jewry from the German Volk."
To work you needed an 'Aryan certificate' (to prove you were not Jewish). Jewish businesses were stolen from their owners under the 'Aryanisation policy.'
of the word 'Aryan' for you?
Clearly the idea of the Jews calling themselves 'the aristocrats of the world' annoys you (*how dare they!*) but it was a phrase also used by non-Jews - with the addition 'because they have suffered so much'.
But yes, what a twisted concept - Hitler, whose laws stripped non-Aryans of their jobs, their businesses, their voting rights, their right to marry whom they choose and finished by killing them - and their children - is condemned while Jews elevated to the aristocracy of suffering are not.
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- 1465Lv 62 months ago
The answer is obvious to anyone who doesn't buy into the false narrative about Hitler referring to the Germans when he used the term. He wasn't.
"Aryan" simply means "of Indo-European race".
This is what Hitler was referring to when he used the term. But that's not what most people believe - they think he was referring to Germans as being "the master race".
What everyone chooses to overlook is the fact that the Zionists ("Jews") actually did refer to themselves as "the master race" (at least in context). Many times they called themselves "the Aristocrats of the world" - "Aristocrat" means "above all others.
So they were actually elevating themselves above the Germans and the rest of the world - but Hitler gets condemned for it when what he said was taken out of context.
It's interesting how hate can accept such a twisted concept as to condemn someone who is not guilty and support the ones who are.
Churchill also referenced the word Aryan in a speech: "The Aryan stock is bound to triumph." - Winston Churchill, Speech and interview at the University of Michigan, 1902.
In ALL of these examples, the word was used in the same context.
- AndrewLv 72 months ago
He meant that he was descended from Arya, a tribe of Ugric peoples that migrated to Celebes and later came to occupy parts of Central Asia, Persia, the Middle East, Asia Minor, and the Falkland Islands. They were known for their fierce fighting skills, copper smelting techniques, and their decorative hand-woven rugs and carpets. They subsisted on goat and yak milk and flesh as well as mangosteens. They were eventually absorbed into the nomadic tribes of Somalia where most came to be pirates or camel herders.
- 2 months ago
When Darius said he was Aryan, what did he mean?